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As I have pointed out on the Talk:Two-part_tariff page, a two-part tariff is not necessarily a form of price discrimination, but a complex pricing scheme that can be used for price discrimination. For that to happen, different two-part price schemes have to be offered. But a simple, single two-part tariff such as the pricing system at a theme park is not price discrimination, since all consumers are offered the same price schedule. The section on the two-part tariff saying it is a form of price discrimination should be adjusted. In this context, the Palgrave definition of a two-part tariff is instructive: http://www.dictionaryofeconomics.com/article?id=pde2011_T000188.Rani nurmai (talk) 01:06, 25 February 2012 (UTC)
It would be interesting to have a section discussing legal status of various price discrimination practices in juridictions around the world. -- Beland (talk) 05:49, 22 April 2012 (UTC)
Shouldn't there be something on this, and how it enables price discrimination, since it prevents an entirely free market. --J.StuartClarke (talk) 03:43, 9 January 2008 (UTC)
I think the current "by law" statement in the text in relation to regional coding of DVD-players is wrong. I am not aware of any law obliging dvd-manufacturers to do so. Without proper evidence for this statement; I think it ought to be removed. (62.177.228.114 (talk) 14:18, 17 September 2012 (UTC))
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